VFA-122 Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) Closed Book Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Under what condition will the HUD landing display be presented?
• What guidance does NATOPS provide regarding altitude and airspeed limits during aerobatics or high-energy maneuvers?
• Which data point features a Canopy weight of 60 KGS?
• Which condition prevents retraction of the emergency air refueling probe after emergency extension?
• N2 RPM Max Transient is specified as what percentage?
• Which set of components is driven by an AMAD?
• Windshield preheat as a fog remedy: which option correctly pairs DEFOG and WINDSHIELD settings?
• Ground idle steady-state oil pressure limits are within which range?
• The exterior lights master switch must be on for operation of the position and formation lights, but not for the strobe lights.
• Which statement best describes a key objective of the NATOPS landing/approach guidance?
• During a compound emergency, which procedure should be completed prior to any other procedures?
• What two actions stop a BIT test in progress and return the equipment to normal operation?
• Aerobraking is authorized under the following conditions:
• NATOPS guidance for post-flight debriefing and maintenance reporting?
• Extended operation of windshield anti-ice/rain removal system on a dry windshield may result in heat damage to the windshield.
• Which pair correctly matches the MIL/MAX maximum steady-state EGT values?
• Emergency jettison is performed by pressing the EMERG JETT button with either the _______________ or with _________.
• If the Bleed Air Knob is not placed to OFF before shutdown, what may occur?
• If a stalled engine will not clear, you should shut down and attempt a restart.
• Which statement best describes the hydraulic powering of the flight control surface actuators?
• During flight brief consideration of takeoff abort possibilities, the following items should be considered: a. Weight. b. Speed. c. Runway length remaining. d. All of the above.
• How does NATOPS address flight deck hazard awareness and handling?
• When a hydraulic system failure occurs, what is the recommended management approach?
• During takeoff checks, the WINGFOLD switch must be lever-locked in which position?
• During engine start, which switch should be ON as it provides primary overspeed cutout protection for the ATS?
• Which data point lists a weight limit of 50,600 LBS?
• When navigation capability is degraded or lost, what should you do?
• How does NATOPS address workload when operating single-ship versus formation?
• What is the maximum transient EGT for MIL/MAX operations?
• At approximately 30% reservoir fluid level, what does the Reservoir Level Switch (RLS) do?
• Which statement best describes the function of the flight control system?
• With HYD 2A failure, anti-skid is available.
• The gyro should not be locked in the caged position if the gyro is spinning.
• HYD system 2 provides power to which components, and pressurizes which elements?
• Rudder toe-in maximum angle is 40 degrees.
• Fuel cannot be dumped with either a BINGO or FUEL LO caution displayed.
• When navigation capability is degraded or lost, what does NATOPS require?
• The canopy can be jettisoned in the closed position only.
• It is not important to detect individual unlit FIRE lights during the fire detection loop test when performing LT TEST with AC power applied.
• The APU switch automatically returns to OFF position after which event?
• Aerobraking requires greater than which KCAS?
• True/False: NWS HI is displayed in the HUD when high mode is selected.
• If wings are commanded to unlock or fold during a catapult shot, bolter, or touch-and-go, which sequence occurs?
• If the PARK BRAKE handle is not set during right engine start, a GEN TIE caution light comes on when the right generator comes online.
• How should flight crews handle miscommunication or misidentification with ATC?
• During an in-flight fire, which action follows shutting off affected systems?
• If the anti-skid system is failed and the ANTISKID caution is present but clears when you cycle the ANTISKID switch, it may reappear airborne after about 13.5 seconds.
• If the trailing edge flaps are failed in the 0 deg position, final approach airspeed is not significantly affected.
• NATOPS guidance on thermal anti-ice usage states that you should?
• At what altitude will cockpit pressurization begin?
• In-flight steady-state oil pressure limits are within which range?
• Pitch attitude for aerobraking?
• What is the primary role of the flight control system?
• What is the purpose of the landing/approach portion in NATOPS?
• Normal brake system pressure is provided by which HYD system?
• Which elements are required in flight planning documentation?
• What is the minimum N2 RPM for ground idle?
• During takeoff checks, the WINGFOLD switch must be lever-locked in which position?
• How should crews respond to radio frequency interference or failure events?
• Is the following statement true: High gain nosewheel steering should be used on takeoff roll up to 50 KIAS?
• On a section takeoff, turns into wingman will not be made at altitudes less than ______.
• The Frequency Sensing Relay (FSR) serves as which function in the overspeed protection system?
• How is operational risk management (ORM) integrated into flight planning in NATOPS?
• Removing the mask without placing the OXY flow knob to OFF can overwhelm the system capacity and may result in an OBOGS DEG D caution.
• During right engine start, if the PARK BRAKE is not set, which caution light comes on when the right generator comes online?
• Nosewheel steering low mode may be engaged; the launch bar is down. True or False?
• The DEGD indication after landing is triggered when airspeed drops to or below which KCAS?
• During preflight, what is the main objective of the external inspection?
• If the landing gear fails to retract you should perform the following:
• What kind of weather information does NATOPS require a pilot to review for flight planning?
• How is the HUD control panel involved in displaying the HUD information?
• What is NATOPS guidance regarding anti-ice usage and weather avoidance?
• The hook light remains on except when the hook is up and latched.
• What is emphasized in stall awareness and recovery?
• Which statement best represents NATOPS guidance for post-flight debriefing and maintenance reporting?
• How are stalls different from unusual attitude procedures in NATOPS?
• What is the Field Takeoff Weight Limitations?
• Which combination describes a stabilized approach?
• What is the purpose of the before-start and before-taxi checklists?
• Which of the following statements best describes NATOPS guidance on risk management and hazard handling?
• True or False: If the BLEED AIR KNOB is not placed to OFF before shutdown, the corresponding primary bleed air shutoff valve may not fully close, resulting in residual engine fumes in the cabin.
• The oil pressure indication on the EFD and the L/R OIL PR Caution:
• On takeoff, accelerating with the flaps in half, at what speed will the flaps auto begin AUTO scheduling?
• If the launch bar does not return to the up and locked position after catapult launch, or the nose gear indicates WonW, the nose landing gear cannot be retracted. Placing the LDG GEAR handle UP will:
• During a hydraulic fault, what action should be prioritized?
• Which caution/advisory display will not trigger the engine left/right voice alert?
• IFR operations with degraded avionics, what should be prioritized to maintain control?
• When workload is high, what NATOPS principle should guide crew actions?
• Which data point also carries a 66,000 LBS limit but is not the Field Takeoff?
• What is the NATOPS procedure for an in-flight fire?
• What is NATOPS guidance on fuel balance between tanks?
• In NATOPS formation flight operations, which elements are prescribed to ensure safe operation?
• If the cockpit oxygen system indication shows low pressure, what is the immediate NATOPS action?
• What is the purpose of the post-flight shutdown checklist?
• How does NATOPS guide determining the correct approach speed and configuration for landing?
• During extended crossbleed from a failed engine, fuel trapped in the feed tank on that side can be released by pressing which light?
• Emergency jettison is initiated by pressing the EMERG JETT button with input options?
• What is the maximum transient EGT for MIL & MAX operations?
• Which data point lists Main Gear as 210 KGS?
• Which oil pressure value is the minimum required within 30 seconds after start?
• Which statement represents something NOT typically included in a NATOPS checklist item?
• What is an acceptable use of crossfeed within NATOPS?
• Which statement about FADEC redundancy and engine performance is correct?
• Failure to route the restraint lines properly through the garters could cause serious injury during ejection/emergency egress.
• The windshield may fog rapidly under conditions of very high aircraft descent rates and high humidity. To preheat the windshield, set the DEFOG handle to _______ and the WINDSHIELD switch to either ______ or ______.
• Selecting manual spin recovery mode (SPIN switch in RCVY) has what effect on controllability?
• For instrument indications conflict with aircraft behavior during critical phases, NATOPS guidance is to:
• In a no-power situation, a FIRE light with a yellow and black border around it indicates that the FIRE light has been pressed.
• What is the recommended approach to anti-ice usage and weather avoidance?
• Activation of GAIN ORIDE during flight causes stalls to occur at lower angle of attack.
• True / False: If you must land with the launch bar extended, you should request that the field arresting gear cables be removed.
• Turns into wingman during a section takeoff are not made below what altitude?
• A blown nose tire can FOD an engine.
• HYD system 2 provides power to flight controls and arresting hook.
• What is the barricade weight limitation for carrier landings?
• What is the NATOPS expectation for crew communications during critical flight phases?
• Extended crossbleeding of a failed engine traps feed tank fuel on that side if the ______ light has not been pushed, and may result in a _______.
• In an unlikely event of a total ac/dc failure inflight, the battery provides approximately 5-10 minutes of power for the FCCs, after which aircraft control is lost.
• What does NATOPS require for flight planning documentation?
• HYD system 2 pressurizes which components?
• If ATS caution is on when a DDI comes on, shut down the affected engine to avoid starter damage.
• An HUD display indication shows which label when nose wheel steering high mode is active?
• How should a pilot respond to cockpit smoke per NATOPS?
• What is the approximate fuel dump rate under certain attitude and power settings?
• After emergency extension of the air refueling probe, how is the probe retracted? (With loss of HYD 2A)
• The primary overspeed cutout source for an ATS is the corresponding ______, and the backup source is the frequency sensing relay (FSR). The FSR monitors ATS speed and provides the signal which electrically holds the ______ switch.
• What is the weight value for the Nose Gear in KGS?
• Operation of APU is totally automatic after the APU switch is placed ON.
• Read-backs during NATOPS should include what?
• What is the maximum KCAS for Emergency Extend of Landing Gear?
• What minimum interval must elapse between APU shutdown and the next start to prevent APU running engagement?
• A single-engine landing is performed with HALF flaps.
• Anti-skid is effective down to approximately ____ KGS.
• Light bulb integrity testing during LT TEST with AC power applied makes it unnecessary to detect unlit FIRE lights during the fire detection loop test.
• A single-engine landing is made at HALF flaps.
• Which statement best describes the effect of FADEC redundancy on minor control faults?
• Reduced Authority Thrust System (RATS) can be overridden by advancing the throttles to:
• Refuel Probe Extend/Retract is allowed at which KCAS?
• Which of the following is NOT typically listed as a main NATOPS section?
• Which condition satisfies crossbleed airstart capability?
• What is the maximum KCAS for extending or retracting the Landing Gear?
• How does NATOPS address ejection safety and survivability?
• What is the maximum transient EGT during engine start?
• How should a pilot handle a radio communications failure while IFR, according to NATOPS?
• The __________ switch must be in the _____ position to use the selective jettison system.
• What is a common NATOPS consideration when operating at high altitude or high Mach?
• Stalls occur at lower AOA with GAIN ORIDE selected.
• When making an arrested abort, allow time for the arresting hook to extend; as a guide, lower the hook _________ before the cable.
• Visual inspection of the landing gear can confirm locked gear, obvious damage, and general position of the gear.
• What is the Main Gear weight in KGS?
• In stall awareness, what best ensures a safe recovery?
• If the launch bar does not return to the up and locked position after catapult launch, the nose landing gear cannot be retracted.
• What does NATOPS specify regarding cockpit doors and egress readiness during flight?
• What is a direct result of standardizing flight operations and procedures under NATOPS?
• During aerobics or high-energy maneuvers, what should you do regarding envelope limits?
• Which system provides the fuel low level indication independent of the fuel quantity indicating system?
• What is the maximum KCAS for TEF Half/Full?
• Which statement about the battery charging circuit is correct?
• The APU restart envelope is below which altitude and below which KCAS?
• If instrument indications conflict with actual aircraft behavior, what is the recommended action?
• What is the maximum transient EGT during Start?
• How does NATOPS instruct pilots to use checklists during flight?
• The APU switch automatically returns to the OFF position 1 minute after the second generator comes online.
• Which statement best defines 'Land as Soon as Possible' in flight operations?
• In an unlikely event of a total AC/DC failure inflight, the battery provides approximately 5-10 minutes of power to the FCCs.
• How should radio call signs and frequency usage be handled per NATOPS?
• Which of the following are the approximate percent levels used by the Reservoir Level Switch (RLS) for its actions?
• True/False: Once EMERG has been selected on FCS COOL, selection of NORM will switch FCC A and right TR cooling back to avionics air.
• In IFR operations with degraded avionics, what is the recommended action?
• What practice should be used to maintain safety-critical actions during high workload?
• How is a typical NATOPS checklist item structured?
• Which NATOPS topic addresses ejection readiness, proper egress procedures, and survival equipment?
• Nosewheel steering low mode may be momentarily engaged while the launch bar is down.
• How should anti-skid braking be used on wet runways according to NATOPS?
• What airspeed may be required to maintain 12% windmilling rpm?
• What is the primary purpose of NATOPS in VFA-122?
• All flight control surface actuators are powered by one _______ circuit and one _______ circuit, either simultaneously or through hydraulic _________.
• In NATOPS, which statement best describes operational risk management (ORM) in flight planning?
• Each AMAD mechanically drives which set of components?
• N2 RPM Max Steady State refers to which percentage?
• To prevent an APU running engagement and to prevent APU exhaust torching, a minimum of ______ minutes must elapse between APU shutdown and another APU start.
• What is the maximum steady-state EGT for MIL operation?
• Placing the wing fold switch to FOLD in flight will cause the wings to fold during landing rollout.
• With wings spread and locked, pressing and holding the nose wheel steering button a second time will select the high mode (+/-75 deg) and NWS HI is displayed in the HUD.
• What provides electrical power for APU ignition and start control circuits?
• With no electrical power applied, a 1/8 inch border of yellow and black stripes around a FIRE light indicates that the FIRE light has been pressed.
• On the ground, the APU fire extinguishing system operates automatically whenever an APU fire is detected.
• The hook light is not illuminated when the hook is up and latched.
• Rudder toe-in is a function of flap switch position and ___, with maximum toe-in being ___.
• What does CRM stand for in NATOPS and why is it essential?
• What is the purpose of the limitations section in NATOPS?
• Which statement best describes the NATOPS approach to hazard awareness?
• If the external tank control switch is in STOP TRANSFER and the hook handle is down, fuel will transfer when which indication occurs?
• Which action can trigger an OBOGS DEG D caution?
• What occurs with gear handle UP, airspeed below 175 KCAS, altitude less than 7,500 feet, and rate of descent greater than 250 fpm?
• What is the Catapult (Not 5 Wet Configured) Weight Limitations?
• What is NATOPS guidance regarding cabin pressurization and altitude safety checks?
• Minimum minutes between APU shutdown and the next APU start?
• Hydraulic cautions HYD 1A, HYD 1B, HYD 2A, HYD 2B are set when hydraulic pressure falls below which value?
• What type of information is contained in the abnormal procedures section?
• What is the NATOPS guidance regarding weather briefing for flight planning?
• What is the second step in the NATOPS procedure for an in-flight fire?
• Which statement best describes the cockpit warning for a single TR failure?
• What is NATOPS guidance on weapons safety and arming procedures?
• Who has the discretion to select the landing site and duration of flight for a 'Land as Soon as Practicable' operation?
• What is the Canopy weight in KGS?
• What is the maximum oil pressure at 2.5 minutes after start?
• The fuel low level indicating system is completely independent of the fuel quantity indicating system.
• What fuel state illuminates the FUEL LO light, MASTER CAUTION light, and activates the fuel low voice alert?
• True / False: A blown nose tire can not FOD an engine.
• Pulling the manual override handle automatically rotates the ejection seat safe/armed handle to the ______ position, releases the survival kit attachment lugs and leg restraint lines, and unlocks the inertia reel. If this is done inflight, the aircrew will be ______.
• What is NATOPS guidance on weapons safety during engine start and taxi?
• The HUD landing display includes which elements?
• The FCS RESET button fixes a detected failure.
• The statement 'There is no voice alert associated with BINGO fuel' is:
• Which data point lists Nose Gear as 195 KGS?
• What is the maximum rudder toe-in angle?
• What does 'stabilized approach' mean in NATOPS terms?
• Which set of elements constitutes the HUD landing display?
• Why is fuel management emphasized in NATOPS?
• Canopy or ejection-seat egress procedures require you to?
• If a stalled engine will not clear, you may shut down the engine and attempt a restart.
• What is the Field Landing/FCLP/T&G Weight Limitations?
• After landing, if the aircraft slows below 80 KCAS and ENG STATUS remains unchanged, the transition from OP GO to DEGD is:
• What is the maximum crosswind for aerobraking?
• With one engine operating and the APU shutdown, the minimum percent rpm required to initiate crossbleed airstart is?
• Failure of both AOA probe heaters in icing conditions may cause which attitude?
• An APU restart should be one of the first procedures you utilize after an engine failure.
• The statement 'The battery charger supplies charging power to the battery anytime the right 115 VAC bus is energized, regardless of BATT switch position' is:
• One generator is insufficient to carry the total aircraft electrical load.
• If the manual override handle is pulled inflight, what is the effect on eject capability?
• When pressed, the FIRE EXTGH READY/DISCH light latches into a depressed position similar to the FIRE lights.
• What is the maximum airspeed allowed when the Refuel Probe is Extended?
• Extended operation of windshield anti-ice/rain removal system on a dry windshield may result in heat damage to the windshield.
• With both generators inoperative and a good battery your hydraulic pressure indicator will be inoperative.
• How are normal procedures different from emergency procedures in NATOPS?
• With an air-to-ground store or tank on a wing station, maximum roll rate is automatically reduced to 150 deg/second to avoid exceeding pylon structural load limits.
• What is the maximum steady-state EGT for MAX operation?
• Which section defines safe operating envelopes such as speed, altitude, weight, and configuration?